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Does an older adult need a different protein target during treatment?

Asked 22 Mar 2024Modified 2.1 years agoViewed 54k times
34

I would like to know what to measure as much as what to do.

I have done this once and I suspect I got away with it rather than got it right.

For context: I keep records of every batch, every lot number and every result, so an answer that requires me to track something is fine.

What does a defensible version of this look like in practice?

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DS
askedDr_Ravi_Selvarajah35k13722 Mar 2024
How long has it been flat? Under four weeks and it is probably not a plateau. – Dr_Lena_Ostrowska 7 months ago
Add the protein intake in grams rather than as a percentage. – deamidation_watch 9 months ago
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5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
21

Accepted answer

Start with the diagnostic criteria, because the term is used loosely here and precisely in the literature, and the two usages disagree.

Age-related loss runs at roughly one per cent of muscle mass per year after the fifth decade, accelerating later, so a superimposed deficit-related loss compounds an existing trajectory.

Protein target arithmetic

Body mass1.2 g/kg1.6 g/kg2.0 g/kgPer meal at 1.6 (÷3)
62 kg74 g99 g124 g33 g
74 kg89 g118 g148 g39 g
88 kg106 g141 g176 g47 g
103 kg124 g165 g206 g55 g
124 kg149 g198 g248 g66 g

At roughly 4 kcal per gram, 141 g of protein is about 564 kcal — a substantial fraction of a 900 kcal budget, which is the real constraint.

Appendicular skeletal muscle mass index below roughly 7.0 kg/m² in men and 5.5 kg/m² in women is the usual confirmatory threshold on DXA.

Grip strength predicts mortality and disability more strongly than muscle mass in longitudinal cohorts, which is the empirical basis for that reordering.

Grip strength is the cheap screening test and it is genuinely informative.

edited 29 May 2024 by sian_llewellyn — added a caveat about sampling

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SL
answered · acceptedsian_llewellyn65k1477 May 2024
2Worth adding that scan precision means half a kilogram is inside the noise. – n_takahashi 9 months ago
3Thank you — reframing progression as maintained performance was genuinely useful. – tandem_gradient 22 days ago
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6

Answering this needs the age and the baseline, since age-related sarcopenia and deficit-related lean loss are different processes that can coexist.

Resistance training remains effective into the ninth decade; the response is slower and smaller than in younger adults but it is not absent, which is the single most useful fact in this tag.

The European working group definition uses low grip strength or low chair-stand performance as the entry criterion, confirms with low appendicular skeletal muscle mass adjusted for height, and grades severity by gait speed or a short physical performance battery.

Resistance-training trials in adults over eighty demonstrate measurable strength and functional gains, which is the basis for recommending it regardless of age.

Nothing here is medical advice.

Strength first, mass second, performance for severity. That is the definition.

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TG
answeredtandem_gradient61k24819 May 2024
3Adding a vote because this deserves more of them. – lipid_panel_q 6 months ago
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3

Answer first: sarcopenia is defined by low muscle strength with low muscle quantity, and function rather than mass is the primary criterion in the current definitions.

Common grip-strength cut-points are below about 27 kilograms for men and 16 for women, though the thresholds vary by definition and by population reference set.

Protein requirements are generally considered higher in older adults — often quoted at 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg for maintenance — because of anabolic resistance rather than because of increased losses.

The current operational definition comes from the revised European consensus, which moved strength ahead of mass as the primary criterion.

Research-use compounds are not approved for human use, and none of them is a treatment for this.

Higher protein per meal with age, because of anabolic resistance.

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DH
answeredDr_Wren_Halliday19k3715 Apr 2024
2

The underlying point is that this is a clinical diagnosis with cut-points, not a description of feeling weaker, and the distinction matters when people ask whether they have it.

Sarcopenic obesity is the combination that matters in this population: adequate or high total mass with low muscle mass, which no scale detects and which a body-mass index actively conceals.

Anabolic resistance in older adults is established from stable-isotope feeding studies and is why per-meal protein thresholds are higher with age.

Cut-points are population-referenced and differ between definitions, so a value near a threshold means little without the reference set.

Sarcopenic obesity is invisible on a scale. Measure or you will not see it.

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AZ
answeredahmed_zerouali15k1727 Apr 2024
3I would add a line about sleep, since it moves the composition of the loss measurably. – cap_the_luer 9 months ago
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1

The short version: strength first, mass second, physical performance to grade severity. That ordering is deliberate and recent.

Gait speed below about 0.8 metres per second is the usual severity marker and is the measure most strongly associated with adverse outcomes.

The caveat is that this is a clinical diagnosis and self-diagnosis from a home scale is not possible; bioimpedance in particular is unreliable at these thresholds.

Resistance training works at every age studied. Slower, smaller, still real.

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MV
answeredmala_venkatesh22k3721 Jun 2024
6Small correction: lean mass on a scan is not muscle, which this says and people miss. – Dr_Ilse_Vandenberg 10 months ago
7The per-meal saturation figure is the part I did not know and it changed how I eat. – Dr_Idris_Coulibaly 43 days ago
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Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.