PeptideStack
5.2kquestions
20kanswers
220users

How do I convert the SELECT hazard ratio into an absolute risk reduction?

Asked 24 Jun 2026Modified 3 days agoViewed 6.1k times
10

This is a question about interpretation, not about whether to act — I will take action questions elsewhere.

Please show the division. I want to check my own against yours.

I would like the general form as well as the specific number, so I can apply it again.

How many significant figures are actually justified here?

cardiovascular
cardiovascular

Cardiovascular outcomes: the SELECT major-adverse-event result, SOUL, SUSTAIN 6 and REWIND, how to convert a hazard ratio into an absolute risk…

68 questions
clinical-trials
clinical-trials

Reading the primary literature properly: estimands, intention-to-treat versus per-protocol, confidence intervals, absolute versus relative…

745 questions
dosing-math
dosing-math

The arithmetic itself: milligrams to millilitres to insulin units, concentration after reconstitution, dose per draw, and vial-days per vial. Show…

764 questions
shareeditfollowflag
CH
askedcal_hennessy17k2724 Jun 2026

5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
29

Accepted answer

The short version: real effect, modest absolute size, largest in those with the highest baseline risk — which is the ordinary shape of a cardiovascular result.

The heart-failure question is separate again, and the evidence there is largely in the preserved-ejection-fraction population with obesity, where the trials measured symptoms and function rather than mortality.

Headline results, principal programmes

TrialAgentnDurationPrimary result
STEP 1Semaglutide 2.4 mg1,96168 wk−14.9 % vs −2.4 % weight
STEP 2Semaglutide 2.4 mg, T2DM1,21068 wk−9.6 % vs −3.4 % weight
SURMOUNT-1Tirzepatide 5/10/15 mg2,53972 wk−15 / −19 / −21 % weight
SURMOUNT-4Tirzepatide, withdrawal67088 wkContinued loss vs substantial regain
SELECTSemaglutide 2.4 mg17,604~40 moMACE HR 0.80 (0.72–0.90)
FLOWSemaglutide 1.0 mg, CKD3,533~3.4 yrRenal composite reduced; stopped early
SURMOUNT-OSATirzepatide, OSA46952 wkAHI reduced with and without PAP

Baseline risk decides how much the relative reduction is worth. The same twenty per cent applied to a one per cent annual risk and a five per cent annual risk produce very different absolute numbers.

Where a cardiovascular claim is made for an agent with no completed outcome trial, the honest statement is that the class evidence is suggestive and the agent-specific evidence does not yet exist.

Read SELECT for the without-diabetes population and the earlier outcome trials for the with-diabetes one. They are not the same result.

shareimprove this answerflag
OF
answered · acceptedorla_ferriter89k1483 Jul 2026
2The placebo-arm figure is the part everyone omits. – Dr_Priya_Raghunathan 7 months ago
3Good answer, but the confidence interval in the cited trial is wider than implied. – mass_shift_18 8 months ago
add a comment
Sponsored

PeptideMeter - Independent Peptide Analytics

Aggregated, published test results and vendor ratings built from submitted batches. Methodology stated, dataset browsable, no listing fees.

Browse results
33

It helps to be literal here: blood pressure falls by a few millimetres of mercury in this class, which is small individually and not small across a population.

A twenty per cent relative reduction on a baseline three-year event rate of eight per cent is an absolute reduction of about one and a half points, which is a number-needed-to-treat somewhere in the region of sixty to seventy. Both framings are true and they read very differently.

In practice, SELECT randomised people with established cardiovascular disease and overweight or obesity but without diabetes to semaglutide 2.4 mg, and reported roughly a twenty per cent relative reduction in the primary composite. The absolute difference over about three years was on the order of one and a half percentage points.

SELECT is the trial to read for primary-prevention-adjacent populations without diabetes; SUSTAIN-6 and LEADER are the diabetes-population outcome trials for semaglutide and liraglutide respectively.

Ask for the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. If a source will not give you both, it is selling something.

shareimprove this answerflag
KS
answeredk_szabo27k2714 Jul 2026
21

Answer first: the cardiovascular signal in this class is a reduction in major adverse cardiovascular events in populations already at elevated risk, not a general cardioprotective claim for everyone.

Systolic blood pressure falls by about three to six millimetres of mercury at the doses studied, most of it early and much of it attributable to weight loss rather than to a direct vascular effect.

It helps to be literal here: benefit appears to track exposure duration rather than switching on at a threshold, which is what you would expect from a mechanism working partly through weight, blood pressure and glycaemia rather than instead of them.

These are trial populations on licensed product. Research-grade material of unverified content is not the thing that was studied.

Heart rate up a few beats, blood pressure down a few millimetres, events down about a fifth in high-risk populations. That is the honest summary.

shareimprove this answerflag
DL
answeredDr_Otto_Lindqvist72k581 Jul 2026
12

Specifically, heart-rate increase and blood-pressure reduction both occur in this class, in opposite directions, and both are modest. Reading one without the other gives a misleading picture.

Resting heart rate rises by roughly two to four beats per minute across the class. The mechanism is not fully settled, the magnitude is consistent, and it has not translated into an adverse outcome signal in the trials that looked.

The cardiovascular safety requirement for new glycaemic agents is why these trials exist at all: regulators required an outcome programme, and the benefit finding was in that sense an unexpected dividend.

Nothing here is medical advice. If cardiovascular risk is the actual question, it is a conversation for a clinician with your numbers in front of them.

Population, baseline risk, endpoint definition. In that order, then the effect size.

shareimprove this answerflag
BC
answeredbea_castellanos24k12727 Jul 2026
6Adding a vote because this deserves more of them. – dead_volume 8 months ago
add a comment
10

In practice, the relevant distinction is between a trial that measured cardiovascular safety and one powered to demonstrate benefit. Several early trials did the first and are quoted as though they did the second.

Cardiovascular composites in this programme are typically cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke. When one component drives the result, that is worth knowing, because the components differ in how much they matter.

A relative risk reduction quoted without the baseline risk is close to meaningless, and it is how most of these numbers travel.

The outcome trials are the evidence; the mechanism is still an argument. Cite the first, be careful with the second.

shareimprove this answerflag
VR
answeredv_ramaswamy68k5728 Jun 2026
6Is the open-label extension included in that figure, or just the randomised phase? – lyoph_cake 8 months ago
7Which population was that figure from? It moves a lot between the trials. – coldbox9 9 months ago
add a comment

Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.