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How do I convert the SURMOUNT-3 hazard ratio into an absolute risk reduction?

Asked 21 Nov 2025Modified 6 months agoViewed 18k times
19

I have three data points across nine months, which I hope is enough to see a trend.

This should be a straightforward calculation and I keep getting two different answers.

The numbers are arbitrary; the method is what I am after.

Can someone show the working rather than just the answer?

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askedklara_novotna19k2621 Nov 2025
7Do you have the population it was measured in? The figure moves a lot between them. – swab_stopper 20 days ago
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5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
74

Accepted answer

A hazard ratio from SURMOUNT-3 cannot be converted into an absolute risk reduction without the control-arm event rate, and that rate is the number people forget to carry across. The arithmetic: absolute reduction equals the control event rate minus the treated event rate, and the treated rate is approximately the control rate multiplied by the ratio. A hazard ratio of 0.80 against a 10 per cent control rate is a 2-point absolute reduction and a number needed to treat of 50; the same 0.80 against a 2 per cent control rate is 0.4 points and a number needed to treat of 250. Identical ratio, six-fold difference in what it is worth. Take the control-arm rate and the follow-up duration from the SURMOUNT-3 paper, not from the abstract, and do the subtraction yourself.

Answering this properly needs the absolute risk reduction rather than the relative one, because the relative figure is stable across risk strata and the absolute figure is not.

SELECT randomised people with established cardiovascular disease and overweight or obesity but without diabetes to semaglutide 2.4 mg, and reported roughly a twenty per cent relative reduction in the primary composite. The absolute difference over about three years was on the order of one and a half percentage points.

Relative to absolute, worked

QuantityValueDerivation
Control-arm event rate8.0 %From the trial table, not the abstract
Hazard ratio0.80Reported
Treated event rate6.4 %8.0 × 0.80
Absolute risk reduction1.6 pp8.0 − 6.4
Number needed to treat631 ÷ 0.016
Relative risk reduction20 %1 − 0.80

The last two rows describe the same finding. Only one of them is used in headlines.

In practice, resting heart rate rises by roughly two to four beats per minute across the class. The mechanism is not fully settled, the magnitude is consistent, and it has not translated into an adverse outcome signal in the trials that looked.

SELECT is the trial to read for primary-prevention-adjacent populations without diabetes; SUSTAIN-6 and LEADER are the diabetes-population outcome trials for semaglutide and liraglutide respectively.

The caveat that matters: none of this is a reason for anyone to alter cardiovascular medication, and I am not in a position to advise on that.

Population, baseline risk, endpoint definition. In that order, then the effect size.

edited 4 Jan 2026 by t_oyelaran — updated for the 2026 guidance change

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TO
answered · acceptedt_oyelaran79k4825 Dec 2025
6The number needed to treat is the framing that finally made this concrete for me. – rania_haddad 7 months ago
5The placebo-arm figure is the part everyone omits. – laminar_bench 6 months ago
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33

The relevant distinction is between a trial that measured cardiovascular safety and one powered to demonstrate benefit. Several early trials did the first and are quoted as though they did the second.

Systolic blood pressure falls by about three to six millimetres of mercury at the doses studied, most of it early and much of it attributable to weight loss rather than to a direct vascular effect.

It helps to be literal here: cardiovascular composites in this programme are typically cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke. When one component drives the result, that is worth knowing, because the components differ in how much they matter.

Heart-rate elevation in this class is documented consistently enough across agents that it should be treated as a class effect rather than as a finding about any one molecule.

A relative risk reduction quoted without the baseline risk is close to meaningless, and it is how most of these numbers travel.

Heart rate up a few beats, blood pressure down a few millimetres, events down about a fifth in high-risk populations. That is the honest summary.

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answeredloss_on_drying40k13828 Jan 2026
1

Heart-rate increase and blood-pressure reduction both occur in this class, in opposite directions, and both are modest. Reading one without the other gives a misleading picture.

Baseline risk decides how much the relative reduction is worth. The same twenty per cent applied to a one per cent annual risk and a five per cent annual risk produce very different absolute numbers.

Benefit appears to track exposure duration rather than switching on at a threshold, which is what you would expect from a mechanism working partly through weight, blood pressure and glycaemia rather than instead of them.

The cardiovascular safety requirement for new glycaemic agents is why these trials exist at all: regulators required an outcome programme, and the benefit finding was in that sense an unexpected dividend.

Nothing here is medical advice. If cardiovascular risk is the actual question, it is a conversation for a clinician with your numbers in front of them.

Ask for the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. If a source will not give you both, it is selling something.

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TQ
answeredtriple_agonist_q57k3822 Nov 2025
1

The short version: real effect, modest absolute size, largest in those with the highest baseline risk — which is the ordinary shape of a cardiovascular result.

A twenty per cent relative reduction on a baseline three-year event rate of eight per cent is an absolute reduction of about one and a half points, which is a number-needed-to-treat somewhere in the region of sixty to seventy. Both framings are true and they read very differently.

These are trial populations on licensed product. Research-grade material of unverified content is not the thing that was studied.

Read SELECT for the without-diabetes population and the earlier outcome trials for the with-diabetes one. They are not the same result.

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DA
answeredDr_Yusuf_Adeyemi54k14716 Jan 2026
-1

Start with the population. Cardiovascular benefit in established disease and cardiovascular benefit in primary prevention are different claims supported by different evidence.

The heart-failure question is separate again, and the evidence there is largely in the preserved-ejection-fraction population with obesity, where the trials measured symptoms and function rather than mortality.

Where a cardiovascular claim is made for an agent with no completed outcome trial, the honest statement is that the class evidence is suggestive and the agent-specific evidence does not yet exist.

The outcome trials are the evidence; the mechanism is still an argument. Cite the first, be careful with the second.

edited 3 Feb 2026 by Dr_Ilse_Vandenberg — tightened the wording; no substantive change

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DV
answeredDr_Ilse_Vandenberg113k2485 Jan 2026

Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.