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How do I convert the ESSENCE hazard ratio into an absolute risk reduction?

Asked 15 Feb 2026Modified 2 months agoViewed 17k times
This question was marked as a duplicate of How do I convert the SURMOUNT-5 hazard ratio into an absolute risk reduction?Closed 20 Feb 2026. It remains here because the answers below are specific to how it was asked.
22

I have three data points across nine months, which I hope is enough to see a trend.

I would rather understand the derivation than memorise the outcome.

Two people I asked gave two answers that differ by a factor of ten, which is suggestive.

Can someone walk through the arithmetic step by step?

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askedsample_id17k2715 Feb 2026

5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
5

Accepted answer

Answer first: the cardiovascular signal in this class is a reduction in major adverse cardiovascular events in populations already at elevated risk, not a general cardioprotective claim for everyone.

Cardiovascular composites in this programme are typically cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke. When one component drives the result, that is worth knowing, because the components differ in how much they matter.

Resting heart rate rises by roughly two to four beats per minute across the class. The mechanism is not fully settled, the magnitude is consistent, and it has not translated into an adverse outcome signal in the trials that looked.

Heart-rate elevation in this class is documented consistently enough across agents that it should be treated as a class effect rather than as a finding about any one molecule.

The caveat that matters: none of this is a reason for anyone to alter cardiovascular medication, and I am not in a position to advise on that.

Ask for the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. If a source will not give you both, it is selling something.

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answered · acceptedtenth_of_a_unit57k3727 Apr 2026
2The exclusion criteria are the most informative page in the supplement and nobody reads them. – loss_on_drying 5 months ago
3Thank you for separating the surrogate from the outcome. That distinction gets lost constantly. – stopper_core 7 months ago
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58

Answering this properly needs the absolute risk reduction rather than the relative one, because the relative figure is stable across risk strata and the absolute figure is not.

A twenty per cent relative reduction on a baseline three-year event rate of eight per cent is an absolute reduction of about one and a half points, which is a number-needed-to-treat somewhere in the region of sixty to seventy. Both framings are true and they read very differently.

Mechanically, the heart-failure question is separate again, and the evidence there is largely in the preserved-ejection-fraction population with obesity, where the trials measured symptoms and function rather than mortality.

A relative risk reduction quoted without the baseline risk is close to meaningless, and it is how most of these numbers travel.

Population, baseline risk, endpoint definition. In that order, then the effect size.

edited 26 May 2026 by void_volume — corrected a unit error in the worked example

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answeredvoid_volume9.5k158 May 2026
8Same experience here, different supplier. – swab_and_wait 5 months ago
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29

The short version: real effect, modest absolute size, largest in those with the highest baseline risk — which is the ordinary shape of a cardiovascular result.

SELECT randomised people with established cardiovascular disease and overweight or obesity but without diabetes to semaglutide 2.4 mg, and reported roughly a twenty per cent relative reduction in the primary composite. The absolute difference over about three years was on the order of one and a half percentage points.

To be exact about it, benefit appears to track exposure duration rather than switching on at a threshold, which is what you would expect from a mechanism working partly through weight, blood pressure and glycaemia rather than instead of them.

Where a cardiovascular claim is made for an agent with no completed outcome trial, the honest statement is that the class evidence is suggestive and the agent-specific evidence does not yet exist.

These are trial populations on licensed product. Research-grade material of unverified content is not the thing that was studied.

Heart rate up a few beats, blood pressure down a few millimetres, events down about a fifth in high-risk populations. That is the honest summary.

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UM
answeredu100_marks52k3716 Apr 2026
23

Start with the population. Cardiovascular benefit in established disease and cardiovascular benefit in primary prevention are different claims supported by different evidence.

Systolic blood pressure falls by about three to six millimetres of mercury at the doses studied, most of it early and much of it attributable to weight loss rather than to a direct vascular effect.

Nothing here is medical advice. If cardiovascular risk is the actual question, it is a conversation for a clinician with your numbers in front of them.

The outcome trials are the evidence; the mechanism is still an argument. Cite the first, be careful with the second.

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DL
answeredDr_Otto_Lindqvist72k585 Apr 2026
19

The mechanism question and the outcome question are separate. The outcome data stand whether or not the mechanistic story is settled, and the mechanistic story is not settled.

Baseline risk decides how much the relative reduction is worth. The same twenty per cent applied to a one per cent annual risk and a five per cent annual risk produce very different absolute numbers.

SELECT is the trial to read for primary-prevention-adjacent populations without diabetes; SUSTAIN-6 and LEADER are the diabetes-population outcome trials for semaglutide and liraglutide respectively.

The caveat is the population. Trial participants were screened, monitored and supported; the effect size in an unmonitored setting is not the trial effect size, and it is not obvious in which direction the difference runs.

Read SELECT for the without-diabetes population and the earlier outcome trials for the with-diabetes one. They are not the same result.

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DL
answeredDr_Otto_Lindqvist72k5822 Feb 2026
The placebo-arm figure is the part everyone omits. – bufferline42 2 months ago
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Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.