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If food noise returns, is that tolerance or a plateau?

Asked 29 Apr 2026Modified 26 days agoViewed 4.2k times
20

Scale weight, waist circumference and a repetition maximum, all logged weekly.

I want to know whether this is a real physical effect or an artefact of how it is measured.

What prompted the question is an inconsistency between two sources I otherwise trust.

Why does this happen, and what would falsify the usual explanation?

food-noise
food-noise

The reduction in intrusive, appetitive thinking about food that most people on the class describe. Its likely basis in central GLP-1R signalling,…

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LC
askedlabel_claim30k3829 Apr 2026

5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
11

Accepted answer

The relevant anatomy is the mesolimbic reward circuitry alongside the hypothalamic appetite pathways, since receptor expression covers both.

GLP-1 receptor expression in the ventral tegmental area and nucleus accumbens provides a plausible route to reward-related eating that is separate from the hypothalamic appetite pathway.

For people whose eating pattern was substantially reward-driven, this effect is frequently described as more consequential than the appetite reduction itself.

Reduced alcohol consumption in this class has been reported in observational and secondary analyses and is now the subject of dedicated trials.

Absence of a validated measure does not mean absence of an effect; it means the effect is hard to quantify.

For reward-driven eating patterns this is often the effect that matters most.

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AP
answered · acceptedarea_percent9.9k167 Jun 2026
4Any published number for how long the counter-regulatory response persists? – amara_nwachukwu 8 months ago
5Adding for future readers: same machine, same time of day, or the series is noise. – Dr_Ilse_Vandenberg 3 days ago
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26

Answer first: the phenomenon people describe as food noise is intrusive, repetitive thinking about food, and its reduction is one of the most consistently reported subjective effects in this class.

Validated measurement is the bottleneck. Existing food-craving questionnaires were not designed for this construct, and purpose-built instruments are recent.

The relevant detail is that dose-response is reported subjectively but has not been characterised properly, so claims that a particular dose is the threshold are anecdote rather than data.

Rapid return of the phenomenon on discontinuation is consistently reported and is consistent with a pharmacological rather than a weight-mediated mechanism.

Research-use compounds are not approved for human use.

Distinguish hunger, appetite, craving and intrusive thought before arguing about this.

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TR
answeredtadhg_o_riordan7.7k154 Jul 2026
7Does the protein target use total weight or reference weight? It changes it substantially. – Dr_Rosalind_Achebe 7 months ago
6Adding a vote because this deserves more of them. – micron22 6 months ago
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17

Its return on discontinuation is reported as one of the earliest and most noticeable changes.

Hunger is a physiological drive, appetite is a desire for food, craving is a desire for a specific food, and intrusive food thought is a cognitive phenomenon. The four dissociate, and treatments can move one without moving the others.

Specifically, separating the effect from ordinary satiety is difficult in self-report, which is a genuine methodological problem rather than a reason to doubt the reports.

Receptor expression in mesolimbic reward regions is established anatomically and is the basis for the central-reward hypothesis.

The reward-pathway explanation is plausible and not yet demonstrated to be the mechanism.

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DH
answeredDr_Wren_Halliday19k371 Jun 2026
4

Concretely, this is an area where the community vocabulary preceded the research vocabulary, which is unusual and worth noting.

Reported reductions in alcohol intake and in other reward-seeking behaviours in this class point in the same direction, and those observations are mostly retrospective and hypothesis-generating.

Purpose-built instruments for measuring intrusive food thought have only recently been developed and validated.

Nothing here is medical advice, and anyone with a diagnosed eating disorder needs specialist input rather than a pharmacological discussion.

Rapid return on stopping is the observation that argues most strongly for a central drug effect.

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BC
answeredbea_castellanos24k1276 May 2026
8I would add a line about sleep, since it moves the composition of the loss measurably. – kwn_analytical 2 days ago
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3

Answering this needs to separate hunger, appetite, craving and intrusive thought, which are four different things collapsed into one phrase.

The effect is reported to return quickly on discontinuation, often before measurable weight change, which is consistent with a central pharmacological effect rather than a consequence of weight loss.

The body-composition substudies in the major programmes consistently report that the proportion of weight lost as fat mass is approximately three quarters or better, with the lean-mass fraction falling within the range seen in dietary weight loss of comparable magnitude[1].

The measurement problem is real. Say so rather than over-claiming.

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KL
answeredkirsi_lahtinen25k2725 May 2026
5Two of us ran the numbers on this and got the same lean fraction, for what that is worth. – Dr_Bram_Verhoeven 3 months ago
6This is the clearest explanation of the plateau arithmetic I have read anywhere. – jana_horakova 4 months ago
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Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.